CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2011

1. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay

2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
xxxIPv4 is incompatible with RIPng

4.Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

xxxIt creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures

5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS
latency
reliability
xxxconfidentiality

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)

HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
xxxHQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
xxxHQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?

The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
xxxA hash value of the username and password are sent.

8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
xxxThe router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

xxxThere is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
xxxOne access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
xxxa manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?

The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
xxxThe traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.

12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
xxxPort Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
xxxConfigure dynamic NAT with overload.

14. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
xxxnetwork
data link
physical

15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.
xxxThe VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?

All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
xxxTelnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.

17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.
xxxDeliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
xxxCreate passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
xxxUse combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

18. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

19. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
xxxsource IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
xxxto create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

21. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
xxxIt will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

22. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
xxxTraffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

23. At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?

after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
xxxbefore LCP begins the link establishment process
after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer
data link layer
network layer
xxxapplication layer

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
xxxA congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

26. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

27. Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

xxxThe VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

28. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE
DE
xxxCIR
CBIR

29.Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
xxxDLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

30. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop
DTE cable on router
xxxdemarcation point
demilitarized zone

31. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

xxxreduced jitter
reduced costs
xxxreduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
xxxThe pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

33.A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

34. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM
Frame Relay
xxxHDLC
PPP
SDLC

35. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?

flow control
error control
xxxauthentication
synchronous communication

36. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

37. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
xxxThey support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
xxxThe RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

39. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

HDLC
xxxPPP
xxxSLIP
PAP
CHAP

40. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

41. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
xxxEach network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
xxxThe router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

43. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?

xxxEnable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates

44. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
xxxThe commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

45. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

xxxantivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

46. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
xxxA wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a “1″ to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
xxxCheck that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
xxxConfigure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

49. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application
transport
network
xxxdata link
physical

50. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended
xxxreflexive
standard
time-based

51. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

52. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
xxxExtended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

CCNA 4 Chapter 11 V4.0 Answers

1
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

–> UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2
In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

–> as the commands are entered

3
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

–> enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4
When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

–> Console

5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

–> RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

6
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

–> show interfaces

7
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

–> privileged executive mode

–> enable mode

8
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

–> Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

–> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

–> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

–> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

10
Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

–> IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

–> NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

12
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

–> show startup-config

–> show running-config

13
Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

–> hot keys

–> context-sensitive

–> command syntax check

14
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

–> The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

–> The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15
Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

–> Ctrl-Shift-6

16
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

–> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17
In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

–> Flash

18
On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

–> console

19
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

–> SSH

CCNA 4 Chapter 10 V4.0 Answers

1

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

–> connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

–> connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2
Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

–> They segment broadcast domains.
–> They interconnect different network technologies.
–> Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

router
–> hub
switch
wireless access point

4
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6
Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45

7
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096

8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

–> host B would be successful, host A would fail

9
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54

10
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12
Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
router
hub
* switch

13
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

2
* 3
4
5

14
What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15
To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

–> rollover cable

16
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
–> 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
–> 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable

20
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface
—————————————————————————-

21

What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

–> direct configuration of the device

–> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

–> the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

or

21  What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

–>the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

–> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
————————————————————–

22

Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater

23
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

–> 1

CCNA 4 Chapter 9 V4.0 Answers

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

–> Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

–> Physical layer

–>Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

–> the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

–> the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

–> addressing

–> error detection

–> frame delimiting

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

–> The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

–> identifies the network layer protocol

–> makes the connection with the upper layers

–> insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

–> Logical Link Control sublayer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

–> A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

–> data field – network layer packet

10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

–> Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

–> A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

–> Collisions can decrease network performance.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

–> network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

–> resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

–> No collisions will occur on this link.

15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

–> A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

–> A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

–> copied into RAM during system startup

–> contains a 3 byte OUI

–> 6 bytes long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

–> minimizing of collisions

–> increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

–> copper UTP

–> optical fiber

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

–> BA

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

–> any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires

CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers

1. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7

192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

 

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

physical

data link

network

transport

 

 

3.

CCNA4Chapter8V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.

Keepalives are being received successfully.

Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.

Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.

The reliability of this link is very low.

The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

 

4. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

transport layer

application layer

 

5. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

narrowing the scope

gathering symptoms from suspect devices

analyzing existing symptoms

determining ownership

 

6. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

physical

data link

network

transport

 

7.

CCNA4Module8Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.

The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.

An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

 

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

top down

divide and conquer

middle out

 

9. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

 

10.

CCNAExploration4Chapter8Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

physical

data link

network

application

 

11. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.

Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.

The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.

The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.

The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

 

12.

CCNAExploration4Module8ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.

Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

 

13. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect encapsulation

incorrect STP configuration

incorrect ARP mapping

incorrect clock rate

 

14. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.

The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP showcommands to find a loop if routing is working normally.

Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

 

15. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

knowledge base

protocol analyzer

cable tester

 

16. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

cable analyzer

network analyzer

protocol analyzer

knowledge base

 

17. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

cable types

connector types

interface identifiers

DLCI for virtual circuits

operating system versions

 

18. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design

IP addressing allocation on the network

requirements about the service provider setup

requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic

expected performance under normal operating conditions

 

19. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Determine fault.

Get to know the user to build trust.

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.

Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.

Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.

Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

 

20. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

All layers

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4

Layer 6 and Layer 7

CCNA 4 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers

1. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.

It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

It increases routing performance.

It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

 

2. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

32

48

64

128

 

3.

CCNAExploration4Chapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.

It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.

It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

 

 

4.

CCNAExploration4Module7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

10.1.1.1

172.30.20.2

192.168.1.2

255.255.255.255

 

5. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.

Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.

Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

 

6.

CCNAExploration4ExamAnswers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.

The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

 

7.

CCNA4ExamAnswers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

ip nat pool statement

access-list statement

ip nat inside is on the wrong interface

interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

 

8.

CCNA4Answers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

 

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.

Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the versioncommand. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

 

10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.

Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

 

11.

CCNAExplorationAccessingtheWANChapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

 

12.

CCNA4Chapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.

Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.

Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.

External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

 

13.

CCNA4Chapter7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

10.1.1.2

192.168.0.100

209.165.20.25

any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

 

14.

CCNAChapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

dynamic NAT

NAT with overloading

open port 20

open port 21

open port 23

NAT with port forwarding

 

15. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

8

16

80

128

 

16.

CCNAChapter7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.

The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.

A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

 

17.

CCNA4Module7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

10.0.0.125

179.9.8.95

179.9.8.98

179.9.8.101

179.9.8.112

 

18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

NAT overload

static NAT

dynamic NAT

PAT

 

19. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.

Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.

Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.

Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

 

20.

CCNA4Module7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

1

2

3

4

 

21.

CCNAModule7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?

1

6

7

8

9

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers

1. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

ATM

CHAP

IPsec

IPX

MPLS

PPTP

 

2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

accounting

authentication

authorization

data availability

data confidentiality

data integrity

 

 

3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)

AES

DES

AH

hash

MPLS

RSA

 

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

Data is flowing downstream.

Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.

The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

 

5. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

use higher RF frequencies

allocate an additional channel

subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less

use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

 

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

digital certificates

encryption

encapsulation

hashing

passwords

 

7. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)

AH

L2TP

ESP

GRE

PPTP

 

8. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)

digital certificates

ESP

hashing algorithms

smart cards

WPA

 

9. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

Diffie-Hellman

digital certificate

pre-shared key

RSA signature

 

10.

CCNA4Chapter6V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a GRE tunnel

a site-to-site VPN

a remote-access VPN

the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

 

11. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.

Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

 

12. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

users are on a shared medium

uses RF signal transmission

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)

physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

 

13. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker’s site?

a WiMAX tower

a one-way multicast satellite

a WiMAX receiver

an access point connected to the company WLAN

 

14. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

cable

DSL

ISDN

POTS

 

15. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths

access method

maximum data rate

modulation techniques

compression techniques

 

 

16.

CCNA4Module6Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary permissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.

Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.

Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.

All locations can support VPN connectivity.

 

17. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies

covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers

supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access

connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

 

18.

CCNAExploration4Chapter6Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.

The devices must have the VPN client software installed.

The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.

The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.

The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.

The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

 

19. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)

Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.

Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers

1. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.

The access list statements are misconfigured.

All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

 

2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

Both ACLs are applied to the interface.

The network administrator receives an error.

Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

 

 

3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.

Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.

Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.

Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

 

4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.

Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.

Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.

In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

 

5.

CCNA4Chapter5V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

 

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.

A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

 

7.

CCNA4Module5Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.

The access list is applied in the wrong direction.

The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.

The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

 

8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination

the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic

the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

 

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

 

10. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

close to the source

close to the destination

on an Ethernet port

on a serial port

 

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

by destination UDP port

by protocol type

by source IP address

by source UDP port

by destination IP address

 

12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

Only named ACLs allow comments.

Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.

Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.

Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

 

13.

CCNAExploration4Chapter5Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?

Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.

Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.

Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

 

14.

CCNAExploration4Module5ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be produced by the access control lists?

PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3.

R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3.

PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1.

PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate with PC1.

 

15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

All traffic is implicitly denied.

FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.

Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

 

 

 

16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.

They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.

When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

 

17.

CCNAModule5Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.

It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

 

18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

packet size

protocol suite

source address

destination address

source router interface

destination router interface

 

19.

CCNA4Chapter5 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.

It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.

It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

 

20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

blocked in and out of all interfaces

blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces

permitted in and out of all interfaces

blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

 

21.

CiscoCCNA4Chapter5ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

ISP Fa0/0 outbound

R2 S0/0/1 inbound

R3 Fa0/0 inbound

R3 S0/0/1 outbound

 

22.

AccessingtheWANChapter5Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?

Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.

Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.

Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

 

23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

dynamic

port-based

reflexive

time-based

 

24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

 

25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

extended ACL

reflexive ACL

console logging

authentication

Telnet connectivity

user account with a privilege level of 15

CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.

Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.

Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.

Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.

Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

 

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.

Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.

Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.

A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.

Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

 

 

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

reconnaissance

access

DoS

worm

virus

Trojan horse

 

4.

CCNA4Chapter4V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?

to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic

to enable SSH encryption of traffic

to create an IPsec tunnel

 

5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

It communicates consensus and defines roles.

It is developed by end users.

It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.

It defines how to handle security incidents.

It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

 

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

securing

monitoring

testing

improvement

reconnaissance

 

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers

describe how the firewall must be configured

document the resources to be protected

identify the security objectives of the organization

identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

 

8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.

DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.

Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.

The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.

The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

 

9.

CCNA4CCNA4Module4Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.

SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.

SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.

SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

 

10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

DoS

DDoS

virus

access

reconnaissance

 

11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.

It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.

It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.

It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.

It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

 

12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.

SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

SDM should be used for complex router configurations.

SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

 

13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.

The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.

The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.

The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.

The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

 

14.

CCNAExploration4Chapter4Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.

The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.

The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.

The TFTP server software has not been started.

There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

 

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

ROM monitor

boot ROM

Cisco IOS

direct connection through the console port

network connection through the Ethernet port

network connection through the serial port

 

 

 

16.

CCNAExploration4Module4ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URLhttps://192.168.10.1?

The password is sent in plain text.

A Telnet session is established with R1.

The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

 

17.

CCNAModule4Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The HTTP server is not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

 

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.

Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.

Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

 

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

Schedule antivirus scans.

Schedule antispyware scans .

Schedule training for all users.

Schedule operating systems updates.

 

20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using theshow flash command.

 

21.

CCNA4Chapter4 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.

The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.

The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

 

22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.

Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.

Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.

Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.

Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers

1. Which three actions might a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR

drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set

reduces the number of frames it sends over the link

re-negotiates flow control with the connected device

sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link

sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

 

2. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.

Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.

Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional hardware for leased service.

 

 

3.

CCNA4Chapter3V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

 

4. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

ARP

RARP

Proxy ARP

Inverse ARP

LMI status messages

ICMP

 

5.

CCNA4Module3Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.

The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1

Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

Frames sent by 10.1.1.1 arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

 

6.

CCNAExploration4Chapter3Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

It is currently not transmitting data.

It is in the process of establishing the PVC.

It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.

It is experiencing congestion.

 

7.

CCNAExploration4Module3ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

 

8.

CCNAModule3Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

It helps to conserve IP addresses.

It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.

It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

 

9.

CCNA4Chapter3 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

Split horizon must be disabled.

The LMI type must be specified.

Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.

The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

 

10. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network

locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

logical address used to identify the DCE

 

11.

CiscoCCNA4Chapter3ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

 

12.

AccessingtheWANChapter3Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Frame Relay connectivity has been configured in the network and OSPF is used as the routing protocol. Router R1 can successfully ping the router R2 serial interface. When R1 attempts to ping network 192.168.3.0/24 the ping fails. What additional configuration should be applied on all routers to remedy the problem?

Add the broadcast keyword in the Frame Relay map command on both routers.

Issue the frame-relay interface-dlci command in addition to the frame-relay map command on both router interfaces.

Remove the frame-relay map command and replace with the frame-relay interface-dlci command on both router interfaces.

Apply the no frame-relay inverse-arp command on both router interfaces.

 

13. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume.

Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.

Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

 

14.

CCNA4AccessingtheWANChapter3Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

LMI updates are not being received properly.

The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

 

15. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

ISDN circuit

limited access circuit

switched parallel circuit

virtual circuit

 

16. Which Frame Relay topology is a compromise of costs, reliability, and complexity when the WAN contains one headquarters site, 40 regional sites, and several sites within each regional site?

star

full mesh

partial mesh

point-to-multipoint

point-to-point

 

17.

CCNAExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

110

115

220

225

 

18. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

 

19.

CCNAv4Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.

The local DLCI number is 401.

Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.

Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

 

20.

CCNAExploration4AnswersChapter3 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.

The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.

The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

 

21. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay nodes.

Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.

To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

 

22.

CCNA4Chapter3V4.0ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

one multipoint subinterface

two point-to-point subinterfaces

with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses

one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

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