CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2011

1. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay

2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
xxxIPv4 is incompatible with RIPng

4.Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

xxxIt creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures

5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS
latency
reliability
xxxconfidentiality

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)

HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
xxxHQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
xxxHQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?

The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
xxxA hash value of the username and password are sent.

8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
xxxThe router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

xxxThere is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
xxxOne access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
xxxa manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?

The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
xxxThe traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.

12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
xxxPort Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
xxxConfigure dynamic NAT with overload.

14. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
xxxnetwork
data link
physical

15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.
xxxThe VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?

All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
xxxTelnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.

17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.
xxxDeliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
xxxCreate passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
xxxUse combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

18. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

19. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
xxxsource IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
xxxto create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

21. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
xxxIt will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

22. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
xxxTraffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

23. At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?

after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
xxxbefore LCP begins the link establishment process
after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer
data link layer
network layer
xxxapplication layer

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
xxxA congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

26. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

27. Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

xxxThe VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

28. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE
DE
xxxCIR
CBIR

29.Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
xxxDLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

30. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop
DTE cable on router
xxxdemarcation point
demilitarized zone

31. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

xxxreduced jitter
reduced costs
xxxreduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
xxxThe pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

33.A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

34. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM
Frame Relay
xxxHDLC
PPP
SDLC

35. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?

flow control
error control
xxxauthentication
synchronous communication

36. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

37. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
xxxThey support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
xxxThe RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

39. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

HDLC
xxxPPP
xxxSLIP
PAP
CHAP

40. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

41. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
xxxEach network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
xxxThe router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

43. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?

xxxEnable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates

44. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
xxxThe commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

45. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

xxxantivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

46. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
xxxA wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a “1″ to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
xxxCheck that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
xxxConfigure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

49. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application
transport
network
xxxdata link
physical

50. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended
xxxreflexive
standard
time-based

51. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

52. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
xxxExtended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

CCNA 4 Chapter 11 V4.0 Answers

1
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

–> UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2
In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

–> as the commands are entered

3
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

–> enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4
When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

–> Console

5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

–> RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

6
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

–> show interfaces

7
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

–> privileged executive mode

–> enable mode

8
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

–> Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

–> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

–> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

–> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

10
Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

–> IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

–> NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

12
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

–> show startup-config

–> show running-config

13
Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

–> hot keys

–> context-sensitive

–> command syntax check

14
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

–> The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

–> The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15
Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

–> Ctrl-Shift-6

16
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

–> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17
In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

–> Flash

18
On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

–> console

19
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

–> SSH

CCNA 4 Chapter 10 V4.0 Answers

1

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

–> connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

–> connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2
Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

–> They segment broadcast domains.
–> They interconnect different network technologies.
–> Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

router
–> hub
switch
wireless access point

4
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6
Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45

7
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096

8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

–> host B would be successful, host A would fail

9
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54

10
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12
Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
router
hub
* switch

13
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

2
* 3
4
5

14
What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15
To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

–> rollover cable

16
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
–> 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
–> 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable

20
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface
—————————————————————————-

21

What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

–> direct configuration of the device

–> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

–> the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

or

21  What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

–>the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

–> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
————————————————————–

22

Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater

23
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

–> 1

CCNA 4 Chapter 9 V4.0 Answers

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

–> Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

–> Physical layer

–>Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

–> the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

–> the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

–> addressing

–> error detection

–> frame delimiting

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

–> The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

–> identifies the network layer protocol

–> makes the connection with the upper layers

–> insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

–> Logical Link Control sublayer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

–> A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

–> data field – network layer packet

10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

–> Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

–> A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

–> Collisions can decrease network performance.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

–> network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

–> resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

–> No collisions will occur on this link.

15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

–> A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

–> A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

–> copied into RAM during system startup

–> contains a 3 byte OUI

–> 6 bytes long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

–> minimizing of collisions

–> increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

–> copper UTP

–> optical fiber

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

–> BA

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

–> any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires

CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers

1. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7

192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

 

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

physical

data link

network

transport

 

 

3.

CCNA4Chapter8V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.

Keepalives are being received successfully.

Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.

Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.

The reliability of this link is very low.

The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

 

4. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

transport layer

application layer

 

5. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

narrowing the scope

gathering symptoms from suspect devices

analyzing existing symptoms

determining ownership

 

6. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

physical

data link

network

transport

 

7.

CCNA4Module8Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.

The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.

An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

 

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

top down

divide and conquer

middle out

 

9. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

 

10.

CCNAExploration4Chapter8Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

physical

data link

network

application

 

11. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.

Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.

The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.

The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.

The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

 

12.

CCNAExploration4Module8ExamAnswers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.

Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

 

13. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect encapsulation

incorrect STP configuration

incorrect ARP mapping

incorrect clock rate

 

14. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.

The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP showcommands to find a loop if routing is working normally.

Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

 

15. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

knowledge base

protocol analyzer

cable tester

 

16. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

cable analyzer

network analyzer

protocol analyzer

knowledge base

 

17. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

cable types

connector types

interface identifiers

DLCI for virtual circuits

operating system versions

 

18. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design

IP addressing allocation on the network

requirements about the service provider setup

requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic

expected performance under normal operating conditions

 

19. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Determine fault.

Get to know the user to build trust.

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.

Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.

Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.

Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

 

20. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

All layers

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4

Layer 6 and Layer 7

CCNA 4 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers

1. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.

It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

It increases routing performance.

It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

 

2. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

32

48

64

128

 

3.

CCNAExploration4Chapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.

It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.

It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

 

 

4.

CCNAExploration4Module7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

10.1.1.1

172.30.20.2

192.168.1.2

255.255.255.255

 

5. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.

Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.

Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

 

6.

CCNAExploration4ExamAnswers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.

The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

 

7.

CCNA4ExamAnswers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

ip nat pool statement

access-list statement

ip nat inside is on the wrong interface

interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

 

8.

CCNA4Answers thumb4 CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

 

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.

Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the versioncommand. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

 

10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.

Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

 

11.

CCNAExplorationAccessingtheWANChapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

 

12.

CCNA4Chapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.

Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.

Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.

External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

 

13.

CCNA4Chapter7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

10.1.1.2

192.168.0.100

209.165.20.25

any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

 

14.

CCNAChapter7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

dynamic NAT

NAT with overloading

open port 20

open port 21

open port 23

NAT with port forwarding

 

15. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

8

16

80

128

 

16.

CCNAChapter7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.

The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.

A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

 

17.

CCNA4Module7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

10.0.0.125

179.9.8.95

179.9.8.98

179.9.8.101

179.9.8.112

 

18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

NAT overload

static NAT

dynamic NAT

PAT

 

19. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.

Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.

Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.

Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

 

20.

CCNA4Module7Answers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

1

2

3

4

 

21.

CCNAModule7ExamAnswers thumb CCNA Exploration 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?

1

6

7

8

9

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers

1. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

ATM

CHAP

IPsec

IPX

MPLS

PPTP

 

2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

accounting

authentication

authorization

data availability

data confidentiality

data integrity

 

 

3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)

AES

DES

AH

hash

MPLS

RSA

 

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

Data is flowing downstream.

Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.

The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

 

5. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

use higher RF frequencies

allocate an additional channel

subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less

use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

 

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

digital certificates

encryption

encapsulation

hashing

passwords

 

7. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)

AH

L2TP

ESP

GRE

PPTP

 

8. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)

digital certificates

ESP

hashing algorithms

smart cards

WPA

 

9. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

Diffie-Hellman

digital certificate

pre-shared key

RSA signature

 

10.

CCNA4Chapter6V4.0Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a GRE tunnel

a site-to-site VPN

a remote-access VPN

the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

 

11. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.

Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

 

12. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

users are on a shared medium

uses RF signal transmission

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)

physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

 

13. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker’s site?

a WiMAX tower

a one-way multicast satellite

a WiMAX receiver

an access point connected to the company WLAN

 

14. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

cable

DSL

ISDN

POTS

 

15. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths

access method

maximum data rate

modulation techniques

compression techniques

 

 

16.

CCNA4Module6Answers2010 thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary permissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.

Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.

Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.

All locations can support VPN connectivity.

 

17. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies

covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers

supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access

connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

 

18.

CCNAExploration4Chapter6Answers thumb CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers
Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.

The devices must have the VPN client software installed.

The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.

The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.

The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.

The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

 

19. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)

Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.

Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

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